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Of course they miss the obvious--as the economy massively restructures it requires more effort to find truly profitable investments. That is because the recession is a realization that current activities are not productive. So what you want is a backlog of potential investors frantically scouring the country looking for ways to create wealth. Instead the Keynesiac relieves them of that stress by giving them the easy T-bill option, so that the government can instead invest those funds in known nonproductive or overly risky endeavors (which is the theory, the reality is that the money simply goes to buy votes--but either way, it is counterproductive).
Whether deficit spending can have a real impact on growth depends on what you think is causing the recession. If it is indeed a shift of resources from an area that was over-invested (housing anyone?) to one that wasn't, in Keynesian terms the economy was always at full employment so creating extra demand will just create inflation. This is what was called stagflation back when the world was mostly Keynesian. But the idea that T-bills constitute an easy alternative to productive investments in this kind of environment is a bit weird - right now the real return on them is negative! If my fund manager was buying T-bills I'd be quite annoyed,
However, even in Austrian theory not all recessions are like this. They can also have a demand-side component in which the money supply falls, distorting signals to consumers and investors, effectively reducing demand. If you have this kind of recession, deficit spending can be effective since it increases effective demand by increasing the velocity of money, although fixing the underlying monetary issue is likely to be a better idea.
Again, you may not like this, but its a simple matter of arithmetic, and I would not like to try to argue that the current recession is a purely supply-side phenomenon. It was until this time last year, but it sure isn't now.
Not all demand is created equal, and not all demand is good for the economy. The government is worse than ineffective at targeting the productive economy. Banks on the other hand, are restrained in the case of "mattress stuffing" not by reserve requirements, but by the difficulty in finding profitable investments.
The solution is not to lend that money to the government so that it can avoid all pretense of productivity altogether.
The solution is not to obscure and hinder the productive economy by propping up the nonproductive economy.
The solution is not to relieve banks of all incentive to find productive investments.
The solution is for the government to freeze, and not cloudy the water, so that the productive economy can declare itself.
And by "solution", I am referring, in almost every case, to a solution to a problem created by the government.
http://online.wsj.com/article/SB125185379218478...
U.S. Economy Gets Lift From Stimulus
After steep declines of 5.4% and 6.4% in the previous two quarters, gross domestic product fell only 1% in the last three months. And while the ARRA overall added "up to 3 full percentage points of annualized growth in the quarter," President Obama's stimulus helped precisely where it was needed most - rescuing devastated state budgets.
and
Many forecasters say stimulus spending is adding two to three percentage points to economic growth in the second and third quarters, when measured at an annual rate. The impact in the second quarter, calculated by analyzing how the extra funds flowing into the economy boost consumption, investment and spending, helped slow the rate of decline and will lay the groundwork for positive growth in the third quarter -- something that seemed almost implausible just a few months ago. Some economists say the 1% contraction in the second quarter would have been far worse, possibly as much as 3.2%, if not for the stimulus.
For the third quarter, economists at Goldman Sachs & Co. predict the U.S. economy will grow by 3.3%. "Without that extra stimulus, we would be somewhere around zero," said Jan Hatzius, chief U.S. economist for Goldman.
And how about that stock market.... up 17% since the President took over!!! Love those animal spirits!
Your continued inability to distinguish between causation and correlation never ceases to amaze me.
But my favorite part is your quote from a Goldman Sachs economist whose honest opinion is that the stimulus has added 3.3% to the growth rate. I'm sure that Goldman Sachs has no vested interest in ingratiating themselves with this administration. I'm sure that they're just disinterested analysts.
You are defending crony capitalism and the biggest giveaway from the average American to the richest Americans. Shame on you and every one who defends this Administration and the last one for bailing out some of the richest people on the face of the earth.
To be fair to muirgeo, it's not just Goldman Sachs. This is a scatterplot of the impact estimates people have published:
http://delong.typepad.com/sdj/2009/09/sigh-the-...
Goldman is actually on the lower end of the spectrum of impact estimates, and as you allude to they are well known as the financial services firm that is probably the most integrated into the Washington establishment.
So what is the implication? That everyone else just woke up and forgot that correlation isn't causation, and the one or two data points in this scatterplot that make sense to you were the ones that soberly remembered that correlation isn't causation?
We should DEFINITELY be skeptical of impact estimates, particularly this early. I'm not arguing with that. But muirgeo's assertion isn't as outlandish as you make it out to be.
How does that apply any less to a Goldman Sachs economist than a GMU economist? Goldman Sachs depends on a continuous stream of accurate information. That's it's primary interest from these analysts. That's what's profitable for Goldman Sachs - not an economic forecast that makes people at the White House happy.
I have no idea how these trends are causally explained with out respect to the government stimulus. No one else is spending to explain the "recovery".
How else to explain 70+ years of agricultural subsidies, market orders, and price supports.
Have fun defending that...
Where did this stimulus money go?
Gee, didn't it go to administration cronies?
And don't those cronies happen to be capitalists?
From the big banks to the little pet projects, all of this stimulus is funneling taxpayer dollars to Friends of Washington.
So you in fact ARE a big fan of crony capitalism, as long as it is Democrats who are handing out your money.
argumentum ad populum
This is an interesting point. In the case of a logical argument, perhaps this is true. But if it's an estimate he's after - like an impact estimate - then confidence in an answer IS a function of the repeated reproduction of the result.
Not to a rational mind -- not without an evaluation of the method of making the estimate.
I don't care how many thousands of astrologers you can find who will all agree on the estimated impact of a given alignment of the stars, I have zero confidence in their estimate.
"A function of the repeated reproduction of the result" is not the same as "solely determined by the repeated reproduction of the result", michaelsmtih. Of course the method needs to be evaluated. That doesn't change the fact that when you're making a fundamentally empirical statement you WANT lots of people to come to the same conclusion. If you're making a fundamentally logical statement then, as you say, the number of adherents is a non sequitor.
Your astrology example is what's a non sequitor unless you can draw a parallel between the legitimacy of the methods undergirding impact estimates and the legitimacy of the methods of astrologers.
No, you didn't use the word "solely" -- you merely capitalized the word IS.
Here is your statement:
But if it's an estimate he's after - like an impact estimate - then confidence in an answer IS a function of the repeated reproduction of the result.
I merely brought up astrology to illustrate that it is possible to get large numbers of people that can "repeatedly reproduce" an "impact estimate" that is completely irrational.
Using astrology to illustrate this is not a non sequitur. If I asserted, "The methods of astrology are invalid, therefore the methods used by Keynesian economists to estimate impacts are invalid" -- that would be a non sequitur. But of course, I didn't say that.
By the way, the burden of proving that a method of making an estimate is valid rests with those asserting the estimates as fact. That would be you and muirgeo.
Is the stimulus working? pt. 2
I'm also wondering what could have happened that would have caused you to conclude that the stimulus didn't work. My impression of the stimulus debate is that there is a sort of heads-I-win, tails-you-lose argument playing out here. If the economy gets better, you credit the stimulus; if not, you claim it would have been even worse without the stimulus. Is there anything empirical at all in these claims, or are they all just proclamations of faith?
If you can explain it, I'd be interested to hear. I'm not interested in "what the experts say" or other appeals to authority; just explain it in terms that would be understandable to a motivated non-economist.
Isn't stuffing money in your mattress, in a way, anti inflationary?
Production and Consumption are the important things going on. Money is just distributed accounting.
If people suddenly alter their economic behavior (i.e. they begin working more and consuming less) those changes can cause economic shocks. But eventually such shocks will be adjusted for if human beings are permitted to adjust to them (i.e. the government doesn't step in).
That's part of the problem! It's deflationary.
RE: "What is wrong with people putting money under their mattress?"
I think it's a little more complicated than that. It's not just an increase in savings - it's a drop in the demand for savings (investment demand) to a level so low that the market can't reach equilibrium because interest rates are at zero. That's the problem. If the market could equilibrate, Keynes wouldn't have even brought the issue up. Think of zero interest rates as a price floor. What happens when there is a price floor? Dead-weight loss. The point of deficit spending isn't to spend because consumers won't. The point of deficit spending is to make the price floor on money non-binding by borrowing, so that the market clears.
And usually there's enough public goods out there that people have been neglecting that a well crafted stimulus can be highly beneficial in terms of allocative efficiency to boot. You can't always depend on that, obviously. That's where the insights of James Buchanan and people like that come in to sober us. But it's possible to be smart in how you approach it.
But the point is, think of it as a naturally occuring minimum wage or other price floor that the economy is stuck with.
There is nothing wrong with falling prices. Do you mind when you pay less for goods and services?
What people dislike about the boogey-man "deflation" is that in modern times it is correlated with economic downturns.
If deflation is associated with increased production (as in personal computers) it is a boon. If it is associated with a decrease in demand then those producers who are losing business whine loudly. And a general decrease in demand means there is a recession.
But "deflation" is not an evil. It *MAY* indicate some pain but it is not necessarily so.
Clearly monetary inflation gets well underway before anybody ever even notices rising prices. That's why you can disregard Bernanke's glib remark to Congress that he will nip inflation in the bud. He won't, because it is already too late.
The flip side of that is that inflation isn't evil either. People have this boogey-man memory of the seventies and for some reason think it is. Why were YOU initially so concerned about inflation?
Isn't stuffing money in your mattress, in a way, anti inflationary?
You said:
That's part of the problem! It's deflationary.
Now do you understand why I assumed you thought deflation in and of itself was a bad thing?
You asked:
Why were YOU initially so concerned about inflation?
My answer:
I never mentioned inflation.
But here I will:
Inflation and deflation and any other change cause people to react and change their behavior to adjust to new realities. Those changes can many times cause changes themselves. Lots of economic change can lead to economic pain.
I suppose I understand... but I hope you don't usually interpret things that people say with complete obliviousness towards context. We're talking about a liquidity trap and a depression on this thread. That's pretty important context if you're talking about deflation!!!!
RE: "My answer:
I never mentioned inflation."
You do realize just a couple lines up you quoted yourself mentioning inflation, don't you?
Stealing is evil. Monetary inflation, since it is an act of stealing, is evil. Rising prices that reflect choices by voluntary relationships are not evil.
So rising prices may or may not be the result of an evil act.
Don't most people in this situation try to keep their money in their bank accounts?
Do banks then stuff the money in huge mattress vaults?
I think the mattress stuffing problem is grossly exaggerated.
You know, if lots of people stopped consuming oil, the price would drop and I would get to fuel my car more cheaply and I'd be happier.
This is not rocket science. If someone is giving you things for free you are far better off than if they demand something in return.... Like, say, interest on the surplus goods they are producing.
Whenever events are looked back upon, they are subject to interpretation. The official interpretation is produced by people hired by, appointed by, or otherwise favorable toward partisan politicians (redundant?) and thus favorable to a certain viewpoint in which the culpability of political agency for bad results is laundered quite clean and blame placed upon handy scapegoats.
Official interpretations may be "official", but hardly objective.
Yes - and if the price of savings could drop we wouldn't be having this discussion.
RE: "If someone is giving you things for free you are far better off than if they demand something in return.... Like, say, interest on the surplus goods they are producing."
Be careful not to confuse nominal interest rates with real interest rates. And be careful not to assume you know that all investments with positive returns haven't been exhausted faster than savings have. That's the fundamental difference between a monetary economy and a barter economy - supply doesn't create it's own demand.
But stripped of the exaggeration, the basic point is still valid - during a recession, people prefer to put their savings in safe liquid assets with lower returns. Savings accounts, money market accounts, govt bonds. Not stocks or corporate debt. Financial institutions therefore need to keep larger reserves, which I believe they prefer to keep with the fed, or barring that in vaults, rather than in mattresses, reducing the velocity of money.
People reduce current consumption if they are worried about their ability to pay for future consumption, hence increased savings, which represents foregone consumption, a necessary component of investment.
People will not reduce consumption below their fundamental requirements. There is a floor to this.
The problem isn't people holding money out of circulation, very few do that for any great length of time. The problem is the conditions that encourage people to do this.
The reactions of people to economic problems may be a problem for the masters of fiscal policy, but perhaps they should take that into account to begin with.
The issue is precisely that people trying to hold liquid assets creates the conditions that cause other people to try to old liquid assets because they become more worried about the future.
Whether all of this justifies the use of fiscal policy to stimulate the economy once its in a liquidity trap is another matter entirely. Personally I don't think it does, but thats a totally seperate issue from whether it happens. In order to believe it doesn't happen you have to have been asleep for the last 12 months.
If they want to avoid hunger, then they must eat, if it's cold out, then they need heat, etc.
IAC, I hear talk of a liquidity trap, or at least the prospect of it, but as near as I can tell, the commute traffic on the highways around here is as congested as ever, so people are buying gasoline, maintaining their automobiles, etc. Most of the stores I frequent or pass buy are still open and parking lots are filled.
Costco is as busy as ever.
So when I hear talk of a liquidity trap, I'm not sure what they are talking about.
Of course, building loans have dropped, but perhaps they should.
So my wife's business partners won't be building a new veterinary hospital, but they are going to incur less debt by occupying an empty facility.
Another problem is that the one thing government could do to help, but never will, is reduce government spending.
I suspect all this political discourse is not so much about rescuing the economy as it is about maintaining the status quo.
The evidence that we were at risk of liquidity trap is everywhere. Unemployment is 10% and rising. Inventories were down. Household savings are up. Real interest rates are negative. Business confidence is extremely low. Bank failures are up massively. CPI growth is almost zero, and RPI growth was negative. All the interest rate spreads - long versus short term, good credit versus so-so - increased hugely this time last year and took months to recover. All the real evidence (discounting your commute traffic, since its not a widely used economic indicator) says we were teetering on the brink.
Which isn't to say we didn't need to have a recession. The property bubble had to burst, and its bursting was going to result in unemployed realtors, carpenters and mortgage brokers and some banks and investors were going to lose their shirts (and pants). But that kind of recession is healthy, and benefits as many people as it disadvantages. But that recession started in 2006, and no-one ever suggested fiscal stimulus was necessary. The secondary deflation that started this time last year was a whole different animal, and posed a real risk to the whole economy.
I think what Americans consider a fundamental minimum of consumption is much higher than the "minimum required" to support life.
There is a fundamental flaw in that statement or I have misread something:
If interest rates are at zero that means there is no demand to borrow money. It does not mean that there is no SUPPLY (savings) of money.
Furthermore, zero is not a floor.
If a saver (investor) wishes to loan money out so badly he could loan it out for free (zero interest) or he could PAY you to borrow his money (a negative interest rate). Zero is not the floor.
There are one or two examples of negative interest rates in history - and perhaps it is just a psychological floor. But for all intents and purposes it is one.
In your great wisdom can you name the optimal savings rate and the optimal borrowing rate? I guess that means you need to name the optimal interest rate too. Do you really think you know that?
Does anyone?
Or are you really just concerned that the rate of saving and borrowing changed and you'd like to put it back the way it was before? I'm sorry the world changes and human beings need to be able to react to those changes.
I'm not afraid of change either. These criticisms and questions don't even make any sense. My problem is that the market can't change right now. It's hit a price floor. I WANT it to change and be dynamic. It's BAD that it can't.
That's part of the problem! It's deflationary.
RE: "What is wrong with people putting money under their mattress?"
I think it's a little more complicated than that. It's not just an increase in savings - it's a drop in the demand for savings (investment demand) to a level so low that the market can't reach equilibrium because interest rates are at zero.
You really need to get off the beaten path here.
People stashing money, or in any other way un-employing it, is nothing more than giving the Fed an interest free loan. Think about it.
The Fed is borrowing money right now? That's interesting...
Given that a zero sum exists between government and the private market, how can any true 'growth' occur? We measure economic growth by additional production, not consumption or higher than expected models. Trillions of dollars of government spending on any resource does not equate to economic growth.
The road is beautiful. Like the ones I saw in Italy when I was there.
And those children you treat at work will live as serfs to pay for it.
Yasafi retorted that he doesn't drive, and shouldn't have to pay road taxes. That doesn't quite compute with the muirdiocy posted above.
Hey this isn't anything new. We've done this before in spite of all the historical re-writing of the Great Depression.
Except for the $7 trillion or so in consumer spending that's already happened this year. What's your ARRA spending at in the last seven months? $100 billion? Oh thank goodness!!!
Gee, without that additional $100 billion (or a whopping 1.4%) on top of $7 trillion in money that, per you, wouldn't have been spent; I really gotta wonder how the US economy would ever have $14 trillion in output by the end of this year.
So would you rather have a growth of 0% or 1.4%. And don't forget multipier effects AND how much of that 7 trillion is already government dollars in the form of unemployment, SSI , government jobs ect ect ...???
That point may very well be true. And, taking this a step further, can you demonstrate that anyone besides the government is spending money that they wouldn't have had the stimulus and bailouts not been initiated?
I don't think its adequate to justify government stimulus spending by citing short-term economic growth figures. When billions of dollars are dumped in the economy, it stands to reason that SOMETHING will happen. The key is that this is all BORROWED money. Of course life is good in September when you get that shiny new credit card in the mail. Its that billing statement in October's mailbox you need to worry about.
That doesn't mean he's saying it makes it a good investment. I'd guess that's why not.
Not to mention the basic implications for political liberty.
But the serious answer is because well regulated capitalism is more effecient and liberating. Most pragmatic answers in life are not neat and siimple and often lie in the middle... with moderation.
For some reason, not everyone seems to find it as sexy and intuitive as I do :)
Incentives are created that push toward increased political intervention, and, in toto, to the benefit of the influential at the expense of the base.
You guys are the ones opposed to publicallly financed election, unlimited lobbying, corporate personhood, considering money and speech as the same and of giving every other sort of advantage to the influential to undermine government and seek rents.
As you have no solutions and justify more of the same problems that wreck the system you have no right to complain.
Me, on the other hand , I have pragmatic non-dogmatic real world reasonable solutions... so I do get to complain.
All the cures you suggest have been tried with the effect of limiting competition in the political arena and protecting incumbency.
You think you have solutions but the results are perverse because you do not recognize systemic problems of the system.
The incentives do not disappear via legislation any more than recreational drugs disappear from the market because they are prohibited.
You are not willing to acknowledge the essential fascism at the heart of your attachment to the state and therefore cannot see your own corruption via the thought of wielding political power to perfect the world, even if only vicariously.
"But the serious answer is because well regulated capitalism is more effecient and liberating. "
Who among us can say what the "well regulations" should be? Are any of us that smart to say it will work as intended without unitended consequences or leading to abuse or loop holes.
To me the biggest problem with capitalism is fraud. Regulation is suppose to curtail these frauds; however, in reality they always work. In the end doesn't the market regulate by punishing those that needed the regulation? Look at the banks, those who were wild "needed regulation" are now gone.
"...spending can be curtailed and the debt can be addressed."
Because governments have such a great track record at this.
Well at least not when democrats have been in charge.
http://news.mortgagecalculator.org/images/Natio...
We haven't changed our spending habits.
I think this is mostly theoretical.
People may be changing from spending to saving, but I think that's a good thing. Foregoing consumption is prerequisite to investment.
You need to re-write your statement to read "If the government wasn't spending everyone's money, and if the general population knew that the government exhibited some semblance of fiscal sanity, the private sector would be utilizing their dollars (which they earned), the way they see fit.
Without the stimulus people would continue to save. More people would be laid off and even less money would be circulating .
Thinking of borrowing as bringing forward goods from the future to the present is a nice accounting simplification, but it has no basis in reality.
What you've outlined is that aside from pure unconstitutional actions, the fed is borrowing against future debt and setting the stage for stagflation! Man, where do I sign up? The results are even more insidious and harmful that a direct tax and spend.
You're so blinded by consumption and 'spending' that you cannot grasp the premise of the question. Consuming everything on all shelves and stockrooms on the entire planet yields not a drop of growth.
Everything you assert is in the middle of the (engineered) problem, or exists after the (engineered) problem has occurred.
Why do you think people are concerned about spending their dollars? Why do you think people are hesitant to invest? Are these actions borne of the normal fluctuation in an economic cycle? No.
Again, where is the economic GROWTH? Spending inflated dollars and/or spending directly taxed dollars does not equate to economic growth of any kind - merely consumption, inefficient spending, and the market always reacts to either cancel out the effect or adjust around the unintended consequences due to the intervention.
For the last time: Where is the economic growth?
"There have been no federal increases in taxes as of yet."
So if taxes increase at some point will justpassingthrough's position no longer be be non-sense?
Also inflation is a tax. The expansion of the monetary base is inflation. So money is being taken out of our pay checks.
Nope, people still need to consume. They don't just stop. The only thing that no one would be buying is GM, Chrysler, Houses etc....because demand has fallen. The Keynesian solution is to is to bury cash in tin cans and then consumers will spend it...but they still won't spend it on GM, Chrysler...etc...why...because they do not want those products.
That's a problem for politicians, since GM, ...etc, contribute a lot to campaign contributions. So they try and induce demand by tariffs, tax incentives or out right bribery (Cash for Clunkers).
But that's the question. Does "a zero sum exist between government and the private market"? At first glance it seems it must, since very dollar the government spends must be taxed, or borrowed from lenders who would otherwise lend for private investment.
But this ignores the third thing that people do with money, which is to hold onto it as a hedge against future uncertainty. When the government takes money that would otherwise be stuffed in mattresses and uses it to build bridges, it causes production that would not otherwse have occurred.
Somewhat more subtly, even when the government borrows money on the open market it can still increase production, because it sells debt that's almost as liquid as cash and spends 100% of the money, where if that money where placed with a bank as a demand deposit a large proportion of it could not be invested and would have to be held as reserves.
When the spending on a bridge, a road, or Cash for Clunkers ceases, what then? Is the additional production sustained?
I ask again: Where is the economic growth? Where is the Constitutional authority?
You'll have to explain your other questions. I don't know what relevance whether money decomposes has to the velocity of circulation, I don't know what "bank loaning power" is or how its relevant, and I don't know very much about the US constitution.
-Simonkinahan
You and the whole of the United States Government. Run - don't walk - and pick up a copy. Regarding economics: your analysis is wrong, especially considering you do not understand the banking system, but I give you full marks for trying. My question was a trick question - rhetorical at best. Keynes tried to ignore long-term effects, zero-sum, and sustainability as well.
It simply isn't true. There is no paradox at all. It only works if you make some absurd presumptions. I went back and listened to the Econtalk podcasts on the paradox of thrift, and I'm simply amazed at how arrogant that econ professor is to Dr. Roberts.
Dr. Roberts, what do you think about that interview looking back? I think you really had him a few times, but then let him continue with his circular reasoning. He constantly used the paradox to prove the paradox! It's like me saying I'm god, and when you ask how do I prove that...I just say because I'm god. It was maddening.
Paradox of thrift is the supply side of the market for money. The other story is the demand side - the demand for investment. In addition to the supply of savings increasing, demand for savings decreases. Because interest rates don't move below zero, it acts as a natural price floor - like the minimum wage - and the market doesn't clear. Deficit spending is an attempt to make the price-floor non-binding. Deficit spending is only advocated when the market can't equilibrate.
I know that's not necessarily going to be convincing to everyone - and of course it's still a simple version of the story - but I really think it's better than people simply talking about the paradox of thrift without considering the deadweight losses associated with the implicit price floor.
Assume that one lives in a deflationary economy where the real return of holding cash is 4% (due to deflation) but the real return of investment is still 8%, investment is risk free, and transaction costs are nominal. Individuals will still invest, rather than hold cash.
If your model tells you that you need negative interest rates for markets to clear, then either your model is broken, or you've extrapolated something beyond the base assemptions that went into the model.
Why does a negative interest rate trouble you? I should be more clear - I'm talking about a zero nominal interest rate. The real interest rate is roughly the nominal interest rate minus expected inflation. In a deflationary depression, a zero nominal interest rate with negative inflation leads to a positive real interest rate. Follow? So we have, for all intents and purposes, a zero nominal interest rate right now. We are also mildly deflationary right now. And as long as you're not Peter Schiff you're still worried about what deflation might look like in the absence of the stimulus or the TARP. A zero nominal interest rate with negative inflation expectations means a positive real interest rate that obviously isn't allowing the market to clear. So there are two ways to get the market to clear (1.) inflation (or at least combat the deflation), or (2.) increase the demand for savings by getting the government to borrow. I'm not sure why even a negative real interest rate would bother you so much. Why does that mean "your model is broken", exactly??? I don't get it.
What troubles you about the paradox of thrift being bunk?
Paradox of thrift is an incomplete understanding of Keynes. If you understand the context of the liquidity trap it makes a lot of sense. If you think there's no good reason why the market for savings can't equilibrate, then it makes a lot less sense.
When does it end? Is there any mention of long run consequences in General Theory?
But that's not even what I really wanted to respond with. My real question is what's the problem with running deficits from now until eternity? It would be nice to have deficits sufficiently small such that the debt burden shrinks over time, so that when we have a good reason for larger deficits (war, depressions, etc.) we have some freedom of motion. But what does it matter if we run deficits from now until eternity? We've only had a handful of surpluses in our history, after all.
Public finance doesn't work like family finances. There's nothing wrong with perpetual debt (there is a parallel with family finances in the sense that excessive debt is bad for both! but what are you suggesting is wrong with perpetual debt?).
1. Taxation
2. Borrowing
3. Inflation
4. Having the Fed buy the bond by printing money (this is the new way)
1. (taxation) You don't get money to run deficits from taxation. If you support a deficit with tax revenue it's NOT A DEFICIT
2. (borrowing) no beef here
3. (inflation) you asked me how they get the MONEY to do it. this is a result of deficit spending and this is a strategy to reduce the debt burden, but it's NOT a way to get money to finance deficits.
4. (having the Fed buy the bond) This is the same thing as (2.)
You asked a straightforward question, I gave you the only sensible answer. The DEFINITION of incuring debt is borrowing from someone - issuing bonds. Taxation is antithetical to deficits and inflation is a consequence. Don't get flustered when I give you a straightforward response.
To borrow means you have to pay back, where does that money come from?
Inflating the money supply, means they pay back less on the debt. So it is a way to run deficits.
You advocate a policy of deficits ad infinitium...that all fine and dandy. But debt has to be serviced. You have to pay interest on it and you have to pay the bonds when they are due. The only way to do that is thruugh taxation or inflation.
You seem the think it's okay because it the government, I disagree.
Even then, you don't service debt with inflation - you reduce the real debt burden with it (and, I might add, the real debt burden of other borrowers in the economy). I suppose if you're refering to the debt (I didn't realize this because we were talking about running perpetual deficits), then sure - taxes work too.
"Thus it is to our best advantage to reduce the rate of interest to that point relatively to the schedule of the marginal efficiency of capital at which there is full employment."
Well how does he propose that we do that, with a "Monetary Authority," which we are living with the long run consequences of now, think housing bubble, tech bubble, bailouts etc. Or Keynes wants just out and out inflation (p205)
Keynes also advocated for the full "socialization of investment." Hey that's exactly what we have done....to detrimental effects. What else would you call the bailout of GS, Citi, etc?
Keynes pretty much wanted to move the economy from capitalism to socialism and set out a theory to induce that. That is the ultimate long run effect of his general theory.
"It will be, moreover, a great advantage of the order of events which I am advocating, that the euthanasia of the rentier"
"Thus we might aim in practice (there being nothing in this which is unattainable) at an increase in the volume of capital until it ceases to be scarce"
How does he want to do that? You get 4 points if you answered, inflation.
"The State will have to exercise a guiding influence on the propensity to consume partly through its scheme of taxation, partly by fixing the rate of interest, and partly, perhaps, in other ways."
More power of the state....a bold statement to make during the rise of Fascism. Oh but what does he mean when he says, "in other ways?"
"There are, of course, errors of foresight; but these would not be avoided by centralising decisions."
More power of the state, and any "errors of foresight"....eh...s&*t happens anyway...but don't worry the State will be there for you.
:) if Sarah Palin was around in 1936, Keynes NEVER would have taken the risk of using such colorful metaphors.
RE: ""There are, of course, errors of foresight; but these would not be avoided by centralising decisions."
More power of the state, and any "errors of foresight"....eh...s&*t happens anyway...but don't worry the State will be there for you."
This strikes me as a fundamentally cautionary note on his part... a cautionary note that he his repeatedly accused of never making!
Nothing to say about the State exercising "a guiding influence?"
Are you proposing he actually wanted to kill them?
I believe that's Tract on Monetary Reform. I've always found the consternation over that one funny :)
Your second quote is more on the mark, and from the General Theory. And look at the sentence before that one - you'll find an allusion to Keynes's concerns about a central-bank fueled inflation.
As for the housing bubble, etc. - you are trying to equate any action on the part of the Fed with the sort of action that Keynes would support. That doesn't really make sense, Justin.
The point is the socialization of investment, as you say. That's the heart of this chapter. At first glance, we obviously have to reject that option (note it's not a rejection of the positive conclusions of the General Theory, only this normative conclusion). But if you keep reading, Keynes continues to talk about individualism, liberty, and authoritarianism. He embraces the value of individualism, strongly rejects authoritarianism, and restates the socialization of investment as a general constellation of policies to influence investment and consumption behavior, and not socialism per se.
And now we all know the history of demand management. Even THAT obviously poses problems. But it is what it is, and that was Keynes's long term vision. I think Keynesians now don't fully accept Keynes's version of that idea - but the general thrust of macroeconomic management in a liberal society is the long term vision.
It's not "Keynes pretty much wanted to move the economy from capitalism to socialism", as you put it.
Oh because he didn't say it in "General Theory" then it doesn't count? I don't think so Dan.
Re: "As for the housing bubble, etc. - you are trying to equate any action on the part of the Fed with the sort of action that Keynes would support. That doesn't really make sense, Justin."
My point is that it is a long run consequence of what Keynes advocated. Your mixing up, "what Keynes wanted and advocated" with the unintended consequences of his policies. My question is about the latter not the former.
The unintended consequences are what is important. Remember what the road to Hell is paved with?
Keynes wanted to induce inflation. We all know the consequences of that.
As for the socialization of investment...well Keynes says it all right here.
"The theory of aggregated production, which is the point of the following book, nevertheless can be much easier adapted to the conditions of a totalitarian state [eines totalen Staates] than the theory of production and distribution of a given production put forth under conditions of free competition and a large degree of laissez-faire. This is one of the reasons that justifies the fact that I call my theory a general theory."
Do you have short term memory loss or something? You were responding to my point that the last chapter of the General Theory provides a good vision.
RE: "Your mixing up, "what Keynes wanted and advocated" with the unintended consequences of his policies. My question is about the latter not the former. "
It's not an unintended consequence of his policies. It was a direct contradiction of his policies. I assume you advocate the existence of a police force, right (just like I advocate the existence of a central bank)? I can't point to police brutality and unlawful imprisonment, etc. and blame you for that. Your (correct) response would be that you don't advocate a police force that operates like that. Likewise, Keynes didn't advocate a central bank that fueled bubbles. He advocated a constant low inflation policy. It's a bad argument on your part to attribute that to him in the first place - but it's also a rhetorical strategy that priveleges doing nothing.
As I've said I have absolutely no qualms with his German preface. I think people either willfully misinterpreting that or they are so opposed to Keynes that they aren't able to read it objectively.
Keynes didn't advocate bubbles, that I agree but he did advocate polices that lead to bubble formation, and those are the policies I blame him for.
Which is my point. I blame the Fed too. Glad we agree.
Re: "Likewise, I blame Keynes because his theory and the corollaries are the main justification for the policies in place"
Argh - I thought we were making progress. Back to square one.
What do you think creates that floor, the x-axis? You are right, it is a natural floor. It is a natural floor because investment tends to be infinite and savings tends to be zero as rates go to zero. That does not mean that Krugman comes along and draws a line cutting those curves off at the x-axis. It means those curves themselves are asymptotic towards the axis--it means the curves never reach zero. That means the I and S curves always intersect above zero. And that means the IS curve (plotted against GDP) stays above zero. That means that whatever quantity the L-preference plane is dropped at, it always intersects the IS curve at a point above a zero rate.
And ALL of that assumes the IS-LM model is anything close to a reasonable approximation to reality anyway. And yes, I know central banks can force a negative rate--but that is besides the point of where markets naturally clear.
Drawing X's on supply/demand curves is very qualitatively useful. But it only works as a linear approximation. Clearly as you draw those lines close to the axes, you are losing the linearity assumption and it is no longer reasonable. You can't just draw the curves willy nilly without regard to the natural restrictions imposed by zero values for price and quantity.
http://www.econtalk.org/archives/2009/01/fazzar...
That discussion was the first time I heard about the paradox, I guess I just agree more with your argument about it.
The thing I really didn't like, and I mentioned above is how he uses his hypothesis, the paradox, as a postulate to prove his hypothesis.
About 16:30 min in, You make the statement that increase savings will produce more cash for investment in an effort to counter the paradox hypothesis, yet he says your wrong because of this paradox which he uses as proof. I know I'm not explaining myself correctly.
Another thing I found arrogant was his use of the words "subtle" and "intuitive." It seemed to me that he used it a lot to mean, it's something that you just can't understand so just trust me on this. That's just my interpretation of the exchange but like you mention a lot, it's a perception problem.
Have you had the chance to listen to the podcast again? It was only after I listened to it a 3rd time did I pick up on it
You don't think that even in the short term the Paradox has some basis? Take this crisis for example, I believe there are statistics out there that say people are saving more than ever before. Yes that should lead to banks not sitting on the cash and lending it for investment which would lead to demands for goods ruining the Paradox story. (If I am understanding why the Paradox is not true)
But at this time banks are sitting on their money. They do not trust to lend it out for legit reasons that the borrowers are not safe. Also their capital stocks and investments are decreasing in value and need to be replenished with either gov't bailouts, stock/bond issuer or deposits.
One thing to think about when discussing Keynes, is his hatred of interest rates. I think that is a key issue in his paradox. Keynes wants 0% rates of interest. And in that world, saving would do nothing for the economy, since banks have no incentive to lend which puts that money into circulation.
More specifically, saving destroys income and doesn't even affect aggregate savings. The "paradox" is that no savings results from saving. Since to a Keynesiac the ONLY effect of savings is to destroy income, saving should not occur.
The problem with the PoT is that (1) savings does occur, and (2) much more occurs besides destroying income.
To someone who ever asked themselves what the nature of wealth creation is, the PoT is absurd. But Keynesiacs don't care about that. All they care about are drawing aggregate correlations and trying to effect change by pushing those curves around.
It is particularly baseless in the short term, because of the delays between saving, cutting consumption, and subsequently drawing from savings.
Don't be misled by it. IF people acted in a particular way in which it is physically possible for them to act, the PoT could be true. The trouble is, nobody in their right mind would think that people ever have or ever would behave like that.
I think that is the sophistry of the PoT. People don't see a logical contradiction in its description (there isn't one), and so satisfied that they've come to understand a basic principle of economics, they pat themselves on the back and move on. But if you don't move on, if you instead start asking questions about how realistic the assumptions are, you couldn't possibly accept it as reasonable.
What I am trying to answer in my head is how recessions start. So, with PoT the idea is that people save, destroying income bringing aggregate demand down. I am more interested in the change in aggregate demand.
"It is particularly baseless in the short term, because of the delays between saving, cutting consumption, and subsequently drawing from savings."
Isn't the cause of cutting consumption saving? Also I think that drawing from savings is cutting consumption, people consume less to not draw down their entire savings to rapidly. This affects aggregate demand.
Can we start with this and follow with more questions. Because...
"But if you don't move on, if you instead start asking questions about how realistic the assumptions are, you couldn't possibly accept it as reasonable."
I want to move on.
Not all demand is created equal. Demand can be part of wealth creation or wealth destruction. Keynesiacs don't make that distinction. That's why they are perfectly happy destroying an economy if they think it will get their unique aggregate demand curve to shift to the right.
And don't confuse this with charity or bailouts. It is true that in a recession some people may struggle with means for their own survival. The government stimulating their demand may put food on their tables. But that is an EXPENSE--it takes from the economy. It is not economic growth. However, when Keynesiacs talk about government stimulating demand, even though in reality it is the same costly activity, they falsely see it as growing the economy.
A recession is characterized by a drop in aggregate demand. But the phony--and costly--demand that the Keynesiacs shift to the right is a new different kind of demand that leaves the demand in the productive economy behind, and in fact forces it to shift further left.
"Isn't the cause of cutting consumption saving?"
I was talking about the response of businesses, which is not instantaneous. If you stop going to your favorite Saturday restaurant and instead save that money, there is first the delay before Saturday rolls along. Then there is the delay before your restaurant cuts consumption to its suppliers (and/or finds new efficiencies, new customers, switches consumption, etc). Then there is a delay as the supplier goes through the same process, and so on. During this whole delay as your decision not to spend on the restaurant percolates (as a signal) through the economy, your savings is sitting in the bank. At some later time, a business may, according to the PoT draw on that savings, but never until a transient increase in savings has occurred.
And of course in reality, as that signal percolates, some businesses will find *ways* to make up for some of the lost income OTHER than by cutting consumption or drawing from savings. So when savings does ultimately get drawn down, it is not the full savings you deposited.
And this is exceedingly important: the *ways* I marked above, ARE productivity. That IS the reconfiguration of the economy from past consumer desires to the new consumer desires. And that productivity only develops because the signals are allowed to reach them.
And the PoT is bunk because it unrealistically neglects those *ways* as alternatives to drawing from savings, even though all of those *ways* are more desirable and a greater priority to a business than the loss of savings.
Even cutting consumption is a greater priority. And the *ways* and consumption-cutting both produce signals which efficiently spread out through the economy to find productivity. That means that only a small percentage of businesses need to be able to find *ways* in order for the PoT to be false, and a new productive economy to emerge.
You answered some of my questions.
In the beginning I was talking about the savings/income loss/less consumption shifting the aggregate demand to the left, so the Keynesians have a point in the short term aggregate demand falling. Especially in the short run because people are scared. They see the news every night and they might lose their job or whatever, so in mass we start saving or not going to the restaurant on Saturday and so aggregate demand is affected before those signals percolate through the system and before productivityy can emerge.
I agree their solution of gov't spending creates demand at the Expense of productivity.
I also want to understand that if the aggregate demand falls and the PoT is not the cause what is? I understand the Austrian view is something to do with interest rates being low so the money is flowing into certain industries creating a false demand and then at some point we have to correct and we have a recession.
What is the Chicago Monetarist view or is the same?
thanks again,
Keynesiacs did not invent supply and demand analysis. Shifting demand curves is not a keynesiac invention. Nor is the PoT meant to explain it. The PoT merely says that the economy gets nothing for it--because "paradoxically" the presumed shift from demand to savings doesn't happen, since no aggregate savings develops. Keynesiacs argue the economy would be better off if instead people just kept doing business as usual.
But the economy does in reality get something from it. It does get savings, and it also gets the signals. And not least important, it gets a termination of destructive activity (see below).
The aggregate demand drop is caused by people consuming less.
"Austrian view is something to do with interest rates being low so the money is flowing into certain industries creating a false demand and then at some point we have to correct and we have a recession"
You are asking why we get recessions. They happen as many people realize that their activities are not productive, so they stop them. That could happen, say, if a giant astroid destroyed half of your country, and people suddenly realize that their interests are no longer best served by doing what they used to do.
But usually recessions occur after a realization that the signals they were responding to were falsely telling them what constituted a productive endeavor. That is a bubble.
A bubble represents a mistake--a misallocation of resources. People mistakenly thought they were laboring toward a productive end. Measures of economic activity, like GDP, reflect a false expectation of wealth creation. In reality, all of that activity is wasted--not only was it not creating wealth, but it reflects an opportunity cost as those people could have been doing something else that did create wealth. The result is that wealth declines. When people realize that, they rationally change their behaviors to amend it. The resulting decline in economic activity merely reflects the loss of wealth that has already occurred.
The Austrian view is that the keynesiacs and the monetarists falsely see the recession as the problem when in fact the recession is one of the effects of the problem. The recession is actual part of the solution--the market trying to fix the problem, once its confusion has been removed.
Then the question is what causes the problem--the problem being the misallocation of resources. That can be manifold, but typically is some government policy that interferes with the signals. You mention below market interest rates. That is both a cause and a potentiator for resource misallocation.
When a central bank lowers interest rates, it is NOT as though a helicopter dropped cash on the country (monetarist view). Instead, the central bank first gives newly created money to SOME small group. The money has almost the same value to that group as prior to its creation, since it hasn't yet been diluted. That group then buys things at full value. The value of those dollars (and of all dollars since they are interchangeable) gradually decreases as they percolate through the economy. Those who first get it are better off at the expense of those who last get it. That represents a transfer of wealth toward the central bank, without regard to productivity. That is a false signal away from productive endeavors. That false signal creates a misallocation of resources.
Low interest rates can also potentiate another misdirected signal. Eventually in a misallocation, the money must run out. It is not wealth creating, so there are not infinite funds for that activity. When that activity drowns out productive activities in the economy, the money must eventually run out, and the bubble pops. The sooner the bubble pops, the less wealth is squandered. But central banks create money and inject it into an economy allowing that activity to be temporarily prolonged (at additional expense, e.g. of inflation). Thus even more wealth is lost through prolonged misallocation, plus paying for the increased liquidity.
Thank you for your well taught and informative responses, I should probably be paying tuition.
I said "Isn't the cause of cutting consumption saving?"
You said "The aggregate demand drop is caused by people consuming less."
was that meant as a postive statement?
if so....
It makes sense that people will consume less in tough times, but that does not mean they are saving the money, they just have less.
"Measures of economic activity, like GDP, reflect a false expectation of wealth creation."
Is this partly because gov't spending is included in GDP, I mean the gov't spending does not create wealth just takes it from something that would have been more productive.
However won't the short run gov't spending cause some increase in demand where the money is spent, create false signals? So Keynesians claim victory?
Also something that may be off topic, but has been consuming my time is gov'ts that have state owned oil. Looking at Norway, Russia, Venezuela et al. if they have revenues from oil can they spend without causing the normal problems associated with gov't spending? For example a rich gov't could potentially keep taxes low because they have revenue from oil and not taxes. I can see how it would be difficult for a gov't with vast oil revenues to not keep expanding which is negative, but in theory could they spend stimulatin demand and not destroy wealth in other areas and keynesians would claim victory? I am curious about your thoughts here.
Thanks again.
I don't know what you mean. It was an objective statement. When people consume less, aggregate demand drops. Dropping aggregate demand means people are consuming less.
"but that does not mean they are saving the money, they just have less"
Both happen, but more the former. Even at the height of the great depression, the vast majority of people were employed.
"Is this partly because gov't spending is included in GDP"
Not usually. Although monetary policy helps inflate a bubble, fiscal spending isn't typically a major contributor. It is the hope by keynesiacs, however, that government spending will move the GDP DURING A RECESSION not during a bubble.
GDP is a measure of transactions, not wealth. It is incorrect to think that every transaction creates wealth. During a bubble people are engaging in transactions that would be wealth generating IF the circumstances communicated by the signals were correct. But those signals are not correct, so those transactions are not wealth creating, as is eventually discovered with the bubble pops.
When people are free to trade and signals are mostly reflective of people's desires, then GDP, which is always an index of transactions, then also correlates with wealth creation. But there are important times when GDP correlates with wealth loss. One is during a bubble with those transactions reflect wasted effort. The other is when the government spends money, where those transactions reflect a cost of government.
"However won't the short run gov't spending cause some increase in demand where the money is spent, create false signals? So Keynesians claim victory?"
Potentially. GDP in the US went up last quarter, arguably a result of government spending. And keynesiacs do claim victory because they don't realize that the demand they are stimulating, and the GDP they are growing, is an ENTIRELY different thing than the demand and GDP of the productive economy. And worse, they come at the expense of the productive economy which must fuel their efforts. So keynesiacs claim victory for economic growth when in reality they've done exactly the opposite.
"can they spend without causing the normal problems associated with gov't spending?"
No. The high oil revenues can insulate against the early growth phase of government, but governments are characteristically insatiable, and will try to continue to grow long after the money runs out. And when the oil runs out (meaning demand for their oil steadily declines), they are left with serious social and fiscal crises.
If instead of fueling government, they allowed the money to all flow back to the oil industry and fuel it and ancillary industries, then the ancillary industries may provide a nidus for a non-oil-based productive economy. But having a whole economy dominated by a single product, let alone a single industry, is a risky affair.
"can they spend without causing the normal problems associated with gov't spending?" Your answer was "No"
I am thinking theoretically, if a gov't had this revenue and was not insatiable. Then they could keep taxes low which would fuel the non-oil based sector for when the oil runs out.
So the gov't could spend when needed and stimulate demand without printing money and the negative effects associated with that.
So theoretically could you say maybe and not No?
I ask because the arguement is always that the gov't should not own any industry and let private firms do what they do best. This also might tie in to an ethics discussion I am having with methinks at the moment.
Come back to reality, surfisto.
Thank you for the help this discussion helped me a lot.
I think the missed opportunity was to interrogate him as to why businesses would first react to lost income by drawing from savings. Clearly that is the LAST thing a business would want to do. They would do other things, like SWITCH consumption, find new customers, and improve efficiency first, and then only as a last resort--and even after cutting consumption--would businesses draw from savings. And all of those other things increase efficiency and productivity while simultaneously allowing savings to increase.
And even IF the vast majority of businesses wound up doing the last resort--drawing from savings--this would only occur after a vast set of highly specific signals pervaded the economy in the form of all of those other things. Those signals would tend to seek out efficiencies wherever they may be. And those efficiencies are the root of the new productive economy.
And on top of this, all of that takes time to happen, which means there is at the very least a transient aggregate savings.
So yes, the paradox of thrift is absurdly unrealistic. That is, reality is more accurately modeled by assuming that the PoT is false.
Along comes me with my idea to open a restaurant downtown. I go to the bank with my business plan and collateral, and the bank gives me a loan at a very attractive rate. Immediately I begin the build-out of my restaurant, hiring carpenters, painters, interior decorators, etc, and buying ovens, plates, silverware etc... I have just employed MANY people because consumers saved too much and brought the interest rate low. The savings glut(thrift) enabled me to get a handsome interest rate on a loan which I immediately used to put people to work.
I am not an academic economist, so be polite in your criticisms. But does this not make sense? And does it not disprove the "paradox of thrift?"
Yes, you get a nice interest rate right now. But interest rates are bumping around at zero.
What happens if the equilibrium interest rate is well below zero? It's nice that YOU built your restaurant, and that helps, but that price floor doesn't allow the market to clear. And when markets don't clear because of a price floor we know there is deadweight loss (think of it like a minimum wage).
You use the language "savings glut" which is fantastic. It is a glut. But the point of the glut is that markets aren't clearing. Not that no one enters the market when interest rates are so low - of course many do. But not enough to clear the market.
What makes it possible for you to know that the number of dollars willing to be saved at 0% nominal interest rate is the same as the number of dollars willing to be borrowed at 0% nominal interest rates? And if those two numbers DON'T match up, how does the market reach equilibrium if interest rates are already zero?
I'm not sure he ever said it will continue to decline in definitely - but certainly he said it will decline for an extended period of time while it incurs lots of deadweight loss.
I'm curious - why would you expect it to apply to personal finances?
a dumbed down keynesian version is: your father saves up a lot of money when things are going good for you.then when you hit a rought patch,he gives it to you. not a bad idea.but a broke father should not try to pretend his wayward son can still get that non existent money.not if he believes stealing from his unborn grandchild is a horrible idea
keynes doesnt handle intertemporal issues at all. he is a live in the moment hedon
You often make this "well - the government can screw up" case. Have I ever denied that? I don't think I have.
Aside from simple questions of liberty (which were enough to sink these two proposals), why do you think I've come out against pay regulations and nationalizing GM? I think intervention is occassionally appropriate. That doesn't mean I countenance spooking the market.
As I have said before, my take on the Austrian BST is that centralized fiscal policy harmonizes market randomness into systemic events.
Loose monetary policy (easy credit):
1. postpones the failure of some businesses that otherwise would have failed in a random manner
2. stimulates the creation of businesses that otherwise would not have been created, in a shared time frame.
3. stimulates higher levels of investment than otherwise would've occurred, also in a shared time frame.
All this amounts to the creation of a bubble premature growth.
When the bubble bursts, the panic reaction of many investors causes a simultaneous reduction in consumption and risk taking (investment) which affects not only businesses which should have failed earlier, but also businesses which where otherwise in good shape.
This is not to say that fiscal manipulation is the only thing that produces synchronous reaction patterns, but easy credit under a central monetary authority is necessarily systemic and synchronizing in its effect.
Likewise, if the monetary authority attempts to contract the monetary/credit base, the effect is necessarily synchronizing in its effect.
I always feel confident when I see government stepping in.
I'm confident that producers will get screwed even more.
I don't agree with Krugman that irrationality took hold of the market but that it was market violence. I do agree with him that if more collateral was available then rational buying would have taken place and the market would not have fallen as fast nor as deep by a wide margin. The lesson is that financial firms and individuals need to have much deeper pockets to invest when others fear.
My sense is that you are both talking past each other.
See: http://www.guardian.co.uk/books/2009/aug/30/key...
Hope this isn't a double post.
Still, I do not see the justification for the government to step in. I do not understand why the imaginary "short-run" must be preferred to the equally imaginary "long-run". It is childish reasoning to me.
at the least the people put to work from the stimulus projects will go out and spend and that spending will be a bust to the economy.
by doing stimulus projects you put people to work. People with a job tend to look more favorably about the future then those with out and since they have an income to spend, they will.
Also most people wont think about the fact that they will have to pay for the debt in the future...at least they don't think about it much, when compared to people thinking about their financial needs now.