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:) although I'm not sure that's what people mean when they use the word "distribution" in that context!
I don't think that people think of any meaning when they use the term "distribution" in this context -- but the very passivity with which this term is used suggests very mistakenly that income is like a pre-existing pie that is then -- in a process independent from that which results in the pie's production -- cut up and apportioned to folks.
I clicked through to the paper - it looks good. The household thing is always important to qualify. It is striking though - Furchtgott-Roth quotes him when he says there was no decline in the last four decades. But elsewhere in the paper he does say labor share declined since 1985 (so she's right - no decline in the last four decades, but he does identify and talk extensively about a decline in the last two decades), and the decline is very clear in his moving averages at the end of the paper. I think the point is still "it's not as big as some people say", but not that there has been no decline.
"Distribution" in the phrase "income distribution" is a noun.
"Distribution" in the word "redistribution" is a verb.
Sure income has been distributed, but forceful and involuntary confiscation of any portion of that distributed income, to give to other people is not "income redistribution", it is distribution of stolen wealth.
So when you socialist talk about income redistribution it is that duplicitous thing you do, it is a lie.
If brains were gunpowder, I could scrape your head and the muirduck's, and not get enough to blow my nose.
In reference to your comment above, good move. Keep your bark barks to one liners and you can, once in awhile, actually write something that is close to coherent; anything over one sentence and you're incapable of the English language.
As for your fury at my use of "income redistribution" - tell it to Don. He brought it up. The only thing I did was point out that the word "distribution" in that phrase was a verb. That's hardly the sort of observation that deserves a rebuke from you.
Nothing strange at all, little one. I was taught about a perfect man named Jesus, who was always right, and never made a mistake or had an incorrect idea. Now I get to see you in action and to all intents and purposes you seem to be a reincarnation of Jesus. Always right, never an incorrect idea, and willing to take on all comers with your vast wisdom, and hammer and hammer until people just get plain tired of your disingenuous sliding away to find a new point to hammer.
Of course you have to use that disingenuous skill you have in order to slide past most opposition, but hey, perfection just is what it is, eh youngster?
You seem to have a different understanding of my fallibility than I do. I'm just sharing thoughts on here like everyone else. The weird thing is the thought I shared here that you just responded to was a pretty basic one that a lot of people agreed with me on.
I quickly scanned all responses below this level and did not see one single one that you could confidently point to as agreeing with you on any of your above posts.
Daniel agrees with Daniel, even though sometimes Daniel also can, for want of someone else to nitpick on, also argue with himself.
But, by God, you will reply, slipping and sliding in your disingenuousness, until your bones dissolve before you'll admit someone else might have a point. Wonderfully educated and brilliant Daniel knows best, and for such a young thing too! At least that is why your mother told you no doubt.
DK: "The only thing I did was point out that the word "distribution" in that phrase was a verb." [the noun being a distribution of datapoints, if you read earlier]
Brent: "If there's no need for scare quotation marks for "probability distribution", I see no need for scare quotation marks for "income-distribution"
richard66: "I think the term 'Distribution' is used for its mathematical meaning. Distribution as in frequency or probability density functions etc."
vikingvista: "No scare quotes necessary. Any property of a population has a distribution. It refers to an observation, not action."
Just get over it, vidyohs.
Brent Buckner, posting as guest
so the loss of 96% of dollar value is made up the managed markets mechanism?. why even bother to upset the applecart
http://cafehayek.com/2008/04/the-pessimistic.html
Are there no independents, centrist politicians, republicans, anarchists, greens, who might also believe one or more of those 3 theses? Why is there no mention of those?
Furthermore, it is supposed to be an article about statistics and econometric empirical data.
But for the opening sentence: "Ask almost any Democratic politician the most important economic facts about income distribution in America, and you are almost certain to hear..."
Diana forgets to provide any data or statistical analysis or evidence supporting the accuracy of that claim.
That's lousy statistics.
Sounds more like the unfounded political claims and beliefs she hates so much.
I know a hypocrite when I see one.
Roperts reports only yesterday that the Post Office will "defer" payment for its employees' entitlement to pension income to the tune four billion dollars this year alone. So is this income "produced" and "earned" or not? Am I supposed to believe that corporate apparatchiks (including trade unionists) never play similar financial games when constructing their own entitlements?
The question is: How am I supposed to know which income is "earned" or "produced", and thus which income is "market income" in Don's way of thinking, and why should I believe that trade unionists and state employees are the only recipients of "non-market" income? After all, CEOs and other corporate executives and "private" proprietors are parties to the negotiations establishing the pension benefits and other income of trade unionists, and they're far more influential within the state than I am.
True, Don did say "Market" economy, while I was of course referring to the real economy.
"The question is: How am I supposed to know which income is "earned" or "produced", and thus which income is "market income"
Yes, that is the question. The answer is not easy, but its still the question, because the method is relevant and the quantity is not.
Don, that's not really true. Much "income" is from production, honest work and trade, but much is from political activity. And that's the breakdown I'd like to see.
Today, I read that the FDIC may soon "borrow" funds from the Treasury to avoid increasing "deposit insurance premiums" paid by U.S. banks, thus enabling U.S. bankers to pay higher interest rates on deposits, attract more deposits, increase their nominal assets through fractional reserve lending, report higher, short term profits as borrowers effectively repay the loans from the funds borrowed in the short term, and thus award themselves bonuses until the next meltdown.
So is this bonus income "produced and earned' or not? Are these financial machinations "market economics"?
If these questions go unasked in this forum, amid the abstract talk of "market income", they certainly also go unanswered.
See above
All you can say about inequality is that the market, always tending toward equilibirum, always tends towards the inequalities that would bring it about, and that any abitrary reductions of them will be like any other interventions in the market, completely counterproductive, bringing about the exact opposite result of what was intended, and not reducing but increasing inequality and "social injustice."
No scare quotes necessary. Any property of a population has a distribution. It refers to an observation, not action. But the double meaning does provide a nice opportunity to clear a misconception about incomes, anyway.
All other factors - those that inflate it (like actual differences in wages, investment returns, an observed association between earnings potential and number of earners in the household) and those that deflate it (transfer payments, substitution of investment income for earnings from work when possible) - combine to shift it from that baseline 38.8 to 40.8, according to the UN's human development report.
Make of it what you will.
I think the term 'Distribution' is used for its mathematical meaning. Distribution as in frequency or probability density functions etc.
I cannot tell you how many times I have explained to him, without rebuttal, in the final analysis, that there is no such thing, but, apparently, you couldn't penetrate his skull with an atomic-powered harpoon.
The Progress Report
Economist calls for fair income distribution in China
Income distribution, socioeconomic status, and self rated health in the United States: multilevel analysis
FAIR AND EQUITABLE DISTRIBUTION OF INCOME
Is the income distribution in the United States fair? Why or why not?
The term 'distribution' is frequently used in a non-mathematical sense. Nobody is referring to a "fair" distribution of data points -- they're not talking about making an observation, they're talking about taking action. Even more disturbing -- check how often the word "economist" shows up in the articles.
I get it.
The fair and equitable distribution of data points -- over time.
Certainly I'm the one who is thinking in a fog.
Prior distribution or not, and inequality rising or not, all that matters is that taking from the rich to give to the poor can not reduce but only increase inequality.
All the other talk is not just a waste of time and a distraction, but a capitulation.
Hyphenated surnames are already becoming passe' with the increasing acceptance of triple hyphenated surnames, such as Teresa Jones-Hampton-Crawley. Pretty difficult to tell where it will all stop.